aspie_pride
02-23-2011, 06:10 PM
:eek:My husband recently was injured on the job.
The xrays taken 1 day after the injury show a bony structure adjacent to the superior acetabulum (top of the joint)
A CT Scan 2 days after the injury showed a chip fracture of his inferior acetabulum (at the bottom of the joint)
:confused:Four days after the injury, the MRI showed no fracture. (The MRI was not standard, since he has 8 stents)
The workers' comp doc said that the chip fracture was old, or it would have been very obvious on the MRI.:mad:
He is still in alot of pain, and when the WC Doc was examining him, he about came off the table and passed out from the pain.
There was no contrast used for any of the radiologic exams.
Can someone explain why the differences in the diagnosis and reports?
The xrays taken 1 day after the injury show a bony structure adjacent to the superior acetabulum (top of the joint)
A CT Scan 2 days after the injury showed a chip fracture of his inferior acetabulum (at the bottom of the joint)
:confused:Four days after the injury, the MRI showed no fracture. (The MRI was not standard, since he has 8 stents)
The workers' comp doc said that the chip fracture was old, or it would have been very obvious on the MRI.:mad:
He is still in alot of pain, and when the WC Doc was examining him, he about came off the table and passed out from the pain.
There was no contrast used for any of the radiologic exams.
Can someone explain why the differences in the diagnosis and reports?